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FCPS part 1 exam for infectious disease
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FCPS part 1 exam for infectious disease
FCPS part 1 exam for infectious disease
1
Personal infomations
2
True and false
3
multiple choice
Name
*
Phone number
*
Email
Post exposure prophylaxis useful for -- a) Rabies b) Hepatitis c) Tetanus d) TB c) Polio
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Drugs contraindicated in pregnancy are a) Quinolones b) Aciclovir c) Trimethoprim d) Fluconazole e) Meropenem
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Antimicrobials used against anaerobic bacteria. a) Meropenein b) Metronidazole c) Aztreonam d) Gentamicin e) Vancomycin
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Viruses causing hepatitis -- a) EBV b) CMV c) HIV d) Herpes 6 c) Rabies
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Cryptosporidiosis characteristics? -- a) Fungus b) Host in both animal and humans c) Cause self limiting infection d) Faeco oral route transmission e) Incubation period is 7-10 days
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Sepsis -- a) Is scored by SOFA score b) SBP <100, which is fluctuating c) Vasoconstriction cause increase systolic HTN d) Altered mental status which causes coma e) Consequence to septic shock
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Which are the RNA virus? -- a) Varicella zoster virus b) West nile virus c) Hepatitis A virus d) Hepatitis B virus e) Adeno virus
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
What are the virus causing hemorrhagic rash? a) Ebolla virus b) Murburg virus c) Dengue virus d) Vaccinia virus e) Coxsackie virus
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Dengue - a) Incubation period 2-7 days b) IgM positive in blood in 3 days c) Glucocorticoid have role in the treatment d) Aedes albopictus is the causative agent e) Narrow pulse pressure occurs in Dengue shock syndrome
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Regarding Lepra 1 reaction -- a) Lepra 1 is immune complex mediated b) Swollen shin lesion c) Painful tender nerves d) Lepra 2 in more extensive in inflammation than lepral e) Lymphadenitis are more common
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Bacteria that produce IgA protease a) Haemophylus influenza b) Neisseria meningitides c) Legionella pneumophilia d) Strep. Pneumonae e) Yersinia
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
In eryptosporidiosis -- a) Parasite of human & domestic animals b) Infection acquired by feco-oral route c) Causes watery diarrhea d) Illness is usually self limiting in immunocompromissed e) In HIV infected pt causes severe diarrhea
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Regarding Chikungunya-- a) Flavivirus b) Causes arthritis c) Long term treatment by DMRDS d) HLA-B27 may be positive e) Incubation period 3-4 weeks
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Transmission of HIV -- a) Blood transfusion most common b) Percutaneous needle prick > 0.3% c) Can be transmitted through Breast feeding d) Through vaginal delivery 10% e) Vaginal intercourse: male to female - 0.1
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Regarding E.coli infection -- a) Enteroinvasive type does not release exotoxin b) Enteropathogenic most commonly causes traveler's diarrhoea c) Entero-haemorhagic type causes HUS d) Enteropathogenic may reside in healthy people e) Requires high 10⁴ - 10⁸
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Opportunistic mycoses are -- a) Mucor b) Mycetam c) Aspergilus d) Candida e) Rhizopore
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Diphtheria involve following nerves-- a) Il cranial nerves b) IX cranial nerves c) X cranial nerves d) XI cranial nerves e) VI cranial nerves
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
AIDS defining diseases are -- 2a) Herpes zoster b) HIV associated wasting c) Cryptococcus meningitis d) Oropharyngeal candidiasis e) Pneumococcal pneumonia
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
The followings are the live vaccines -- a) Salk polio b) BCG c) Mumps d) Measles e) Rabies
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Regarding lepromatous leprosy -- a) Skin lesion with early disease b) Lepra reaction positive c) Nerve lesion before skin lesion d) Symmetrical lesion e) Loss of sensation early
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Regarding infection with cytomegalovirus -- a) LFT normal b) Alkaline phosphatase level raises out of proportion to liver disease c) Atypical lymphocytosis is not as prominent as infectious mononucleosis d) Heterophile antibody negative e) Common in HIV positive transplant recipient patient
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Staphylococcus aureus - a) Is coagulase positive b) Can be found as Gram positive diplococci c) Causes left sided endocarditis d) Produces erythrogenic toxin e) Causes autoimmunity due to cross reaction to its M protein
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Yersina pestis -- a) Is a Gram positive rod b) Is micro-aerophilic c) The vectors are fleas on rats d) Has a polysaccharide coat e) Is called 'Safety Pin Bacillus'
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Opportunistic fungi are [FCPS-Medicine-Jui a) Candida b) Histoplasma c) Epidermophyton d) Trichophyton e) Cryptococcus
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Visceral leishmaniasis can be diagnosed by- a) Urinary rk39 b) Splenic aspirate showing LD bodies c) Positive leismanin test d) Blood culture showing amastigots e) Bone marrow showing promastigotes
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
All are exotoxin producing bacteria except?
Diphtheria
Tetanus
Staph. Aureus
TB
Vibrio cholera
All are live vaccines except-
Varicella
Typhoid
TB
Rabies
MMR
After road traffic accident, patient present with infected wound which has crepitus and pain. Wound swan culture reveal Gram positive rods are seen. Which organism is most likely the causative agent?
Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium tetany
Streptococcus pyogens
Actinomyces israelii
Nocardia
Following cystoscope patient developed fever. Which organism is responsible for this?
S. aureus
S. epidermidis
Proteus
Pseudomonas
E. coli
Which one is specific for tuberculoid leprosy?
Vigorus cellular immunity of host
Dry skin
Absent bacteria on skin smear
Skin somear positive with dead bacteria
Nerve lesion
Which is the commonest organism in pt of central venous catheter?
Streptococcus aureus
Staph. Epidermidis
Staph. Saprophyticus
Staph. Mitis
Staph. Sanguis
A 35 year farmer came to you with fever, rt lower chest pain with headache, hepatomegaly. On x-ray bilateral lung consolidation, what is the most causative organism?
Leptospira
Brucella
M. tuberculosis
Legionella
Listeria
A patient came to you with hyperpigmented lesion. How will you diagnose it as a case of tuberculoid leprosy in skin lesion.
Non elevated margin
Absence of central healing
Smooth
Asymmetrial
Symmetrical lesion
Mostly regarding chance of IIIV after single exposure by
Blood transfusion
Percutaneous needle puncture
Intravenous drug abuser or needle sharing
Vaginal intercourse
Vaginal delivery
HIV pt. with left upper & lower limb weakness. Recently he was treated for pneumocystis jiroveci infection. MRI shows multiple ring enhancing lesion is cortical & subcortical area.
CMV encephalitis
TB meningitis
Cerebral toxoplasmosis
PMFL (Paroxysmal multifocal leukoencephalopathy)
Primary CNS Lymphoma
Not AIDS defining illness
Oropharyngeal candidiasis
Esophageal candidiasis
Tracheal candidiasis
Kaposi's sarcoma
Herpes infection > 1 month
A patient with HIV with CD4 count 300. The organism he is most susceptible to
P. jirovecii
Cryptococcus
Bacterial pneumonia
CMV
Mycobacterium avium intracellular
A patient with DM taking amoxicillin and clavulanic acid for pneumonia. 5 days later he developed diarrhea, what is the most effective treatment?
Metronidazole
Fidaxomicin
Penicillin
Vancomycin
Tetracycline
Which one is Expanded feature of dengue?
GBS
Shock
Acute peptic ulcer
Platelet count<10,000/mm
WBC count<3,000/mm
Bacterial metabolism requires iron. Which macromolecule in the bacteria helps it to maintain adequate iron stores for its metabolism when it is inside a host?
Siderophore
Ferro chelatase
Ferritin
Transferrin
Lactoferrin
Which of the following is the method of developing bacterial drug resistance?
Decrease of bacterial enzymes that activate a drug
Use of the drug in a metabolic pathway
Production of more substrates to compete with the drug for a binding site
Change of the molecular target of the drug
Decrease of bacterial enzymes that modify the drug
Antitubercular drugs commonly become resistant to macrobacteria
Pyrazinamide & Ethambutol
Isoniazid & Streptomycin
Rifampicin & Ethambutol
Isoniazid & Rifampicin
Few persons go to a dinner & eat chicken fry, fried rice & most of them undergoes diarrhea within one hour. The most probable organism is-
Staph. Aureus
S. synhymenium
Bacillus cereus
Clostridium
Shigella
An HIV positive patient wishes to know the risk of him developing AIDS. Which investigation would be helpful to determine when he may develop the AIDS when he may develop the AIDS symptom complex?
HIV RNA (PCR)
GP 41 antibody
CD 4 count
Western blot
HIV antibody (ELISA)
A young farmer presents with a 10-day history of blurred vision in his left eye. He says that 2 weeks ago his left eye was damaged by vegetation. On examination there is an ulcerative lesion in the cornea, the base of which has a raised creamy infiltrate. The slough off the ulcer appears dry, with a feathery border surrounded by a yellow line of demarcation. There are a few satellite lesions as well. Which one of the following is the most likely cause for his condition?
Chlamydia trachomatis
Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
Aspergillus sp.
Moraxella spp
Staphylococcus aureus
A 28-year-old farm labourer presents with an aching, stiff lower back and an inability to fully open his mouth. He subsequently suffers what is described as a generalised rigid spasm by Emergency Department staff; this was not associated with loss of consciousness, confusion or fever, and he was treated with intravenous diazepam. Examination does not reveal any abnormalities. What is the next most important step?
Brain CT scan
Administration of intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics
Call the police
Administration of anti-tetanus immunoglobulin
Lumbar puncture (LP)
An 18-year-old gap year student presents to A+E on her return from a 2-week trip building a school in Sub-Saharan Africa. She feels well and is afebrile, took malaria prophylaxis and had all the recommended vaccinations before her trip; however, she received several insect bites and is now very concerned that she may have contracted a disease from one of these. Which one of the following is not caused by a pathogen transmitted via an insect vector?
African trypanosomiasis
Loa loa
Lymphatic filariasis
Visceral leishmaniasis
Schistosomiasis
An 18 year old woman presents to A+E with a short history of dysuria and abdominal pain. A pregnancy test is negative and a urine dipstick test is positive for leukocytes. A course of trimethoprim is commenced. One week later she returns with persistent symptoms. Urine culture sent on the first visit is negative. Which one of the following options is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Chlamydia trachomatis
Escherichia coli
Herpes simplex virus
Neisseria gonorrhea
Trichomonas vaginalis
A 35-year-old sailor presents with a painless swelling on the sole of his foot that has progressively increased in size. There is a pus-filled area of ulceration with the beginnings of a yellowish-white crust. Microscopy of a smear from the ulcer shows Gram-positive, filamentous, branching bacteria. Which one of the following organisms is most likely responsible for his symptoms?
Blastomyces dermatitidis
Cladosporium spp.
Madurella mycetomatis
Nocardia brasiliensis
Sporothrix schenckii
A 72-year-old woman is admitted to the Emergency Department with gastroenteritis. She also has a headache, neck stiffness and mild confusion. She maintains that she only buys fresh food and keeps her fridge at 4 °C. Her daughter confirms that the mother is obsessive when it comes to watching ‘sell by’ and ‘use by’ dates. Which one of the following pathogens is the most likely cause of her food poisoning?
Bacillus cereus
Clostridium botulinum type A
Escherichia coli
Listeria monocytogenes
Staphylococcus aureus
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Untitled Quiz Field