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Final mock Test -01 for FCPS part-1 with Dr Sohrab
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Final mock Test -01 for FCPS part-1 with Dr Sohrab
1
Personal infomations
2
True and false
3
multiple choice
Name
*
Phone number
*
Email
Cavernous sinus contains a) 10th nerve b) 3rd nerve c) 4th nerve d) 9th nerve e) Sympathetic plexus
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Memory is function of which structures? a) Amygdala b) Hippocampus c) Limbic system d) Reticular formation e) Pons
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Neuropathic pain features a) Triggered by emotion b)Response to opioid c) Spontaneous d) Pulsatile e) Diabetes can be a cause
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Regarding blood brain barrier a) It is tightly attached in area postrema b) It is composed of endothelial layer, basement membrane and astrocytes c) It is devoid of neurohypophysis d) Acts as a protective barrier in adult e) Passage of drug and nutrient in the area
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Which structures are involved in light reflex? a) Edenger Westphal nucles b) Occulomotor nerve c) Pretectal nucles d) Optic radiation e) Optic nerve
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Features of UMN lesion a) Increased muscle tone b) Muscle fasciculation c) Muscle wasting d) Normal electrical activities e) Presence of abdominal activities
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Basal ganglia contains a) Lentiform nucleus b) Red nucleus c) Internal capsule d) Claustrum e) Amygdale
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Medications used in the management of Parkinson's disease are a) Levodopa b) Bromocriptine c) Benztropine d) Benzhexol e) Apomorphine
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Neuropathic pain a) Occurs spontaneously b) Allodynia c) Thallodynia d) Trigeminal neuralgia is one of the causes e) Carbamazepine of TCA may help
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Causes of cerebral venous thrombosis a) HTN b) OCP c) Nulliparous d) Facial skin infection e) Thrombocytosis
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Pernicious anaemia associated with autoimmune chronic gastritis a) Macrocytic anaemia b) Glossitis c) Cheilosis d) Oesophageal web e) Adenocarcinoma
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Features of Hemolysis a) Increased LHD b) Reticulocytotic c) Direct bilirubin d) Decreased Urobilinogen e) Haptoglobin reduction
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Immunoglobulin is produced in a) Platelet b) Fibroblast c) Plasma cell d) B lymphocyte e) Eosinophil
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Causes of thrombosis with paradoxical thrombocytopenia -a) CLD b) ITP c) Heparin induced thrombocytopenia d) PNH e) HUS
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Warfarin action potentiated by which drugs? a) Indomethacin b) Miconazole c) Phenytoin d) Phenylbutazone Metronidazole
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Complications of liver failure a) Hypoglycaemia b) Renal failure c) Metabolic alkalosis d) Encephalopathy e) Bacterial infection
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Site of portocaval anastomosis a) Lower anal canal b) Pancreas c) Liver sinusoid d) Esophagus e) Around umbilicus
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Hepatic microsomal enzyme inhibitors are a) Ciprofloxacin b) Cimetidine c) Rifampicin d) Spironolactone e) Penicillin
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Serum alkaline phosphatase a) Hydrolyses phosphate in alkaline pH b) Increased during bile duct obstruction c) Increased in viral hepatitis d) Decreased in paget's disease of bone e) Decreased in osteomalacia
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Function of liver a) Synthesis of albumin b) Synthesis of globulin c) Storage of vitamin B₁2 d) Storage of Fe e) Synthesis of phospholipid
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Pregnancy is associated with a) Diarrhoea b) Constipation c) Vomiting d) Anal fissure e) Heart burn
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Somatostatin a) Reduces absorption b) Reduces gastrin release c) Reduces insulin secretion d) Decreases intestinal motility e) Stimulates glucagon secretion
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Neuropeptides released from gut a. Secretin b. Motilin c. Amylase d. CCK е. Оpioids
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Function of gastrin includes a) Stimulates pepsin secretion b) Decreases acid secretion c) Stimulates growth of gastrointestinal mucosa d) Contraction of lower esophageal sphincter e) Inhibits pancreatic secretion
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
A30 year old man came to you with H/O dyspensia, When you suspect it as on alarming features? a) Age b) Weight loss c) Anemia d) Bleeding e) Vomiting
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Barriers to good communication in health care are a) Hurried approach by the clinician b) Use of jargon by the clinician c) Dismissive attitude of the clinician d) Cognitive impairment of the patient e) Patient's reluctance to discuss sensitive issues
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
During pregnancy a) HB increase b) Thrombocytopenia c) VWF increase d) DVT e) Hemolysis
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Clinical audit parts are a) Define standards b) Evaluate results c) Implement changes d) Monitor outcome e) Compare with charge
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Ionizing radiation a) Does not affect the eyes b) Affects renal function c) Does not affect the lung d) Affects the brain e) Does not affect the skin
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Ascent to high altitude a) Motion sickness occurs above 4000 m b) Oz tension is lower in high altitude c) Headache is a feature of acute mountain sickness d) Prolong exposure to 5000-7000 meters causes weight gain e) Clubbing occur in chronic mountain sickness
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Streptokinase is contraindicated in a) Previous history of heart attack b) Renal failure c) Diabetes millitus d) Acute pulmonary oedema e) Recent history of CPR
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Regarding measurement of heart a) 20 cm from base to apex b) 12 cm in width c) Antero-posterior diameter is 6 cm d) 120-230 gm in female e) 290-500 gm in male
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
The right border of the heart is formed by a) Right ventricle b) Right atrium c) Right Atrial appendix d) Right atrium & right ventricle e) Right auricle & right ventricle
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
JVP -- a) A rough guide of cardiac cycle b) A-V interval coincide ventricular diastole c) Multiple a wave indicates complete heart block d) Right internal jugular vein pressure is measured e) V wave- pulmonary HTN
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
ECG findings of hypokalemia a) QRS is broad b) Prolongation of QT interval c) T wave is interval d) U wave is present e) Tall peaked T wave
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
The right atrium a) Lies in front of the aorta b) Has foramen oval in 30% of adults c) Receives blood from the coronary sinus d) Houses the SA node e) Forms part of the base of the heart
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Characters of benign murmur include a) Mid-systolic b) Pansystolic c) Heard on the left sternal edge d) Heard on the apex e) Soft
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Benign heart murmur is characterized by a) Found in left sternal edge b) Grade 5 and 6 intensity c) Mid systolic murmur d) No radiation e) Soft 2nd heart sound
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Low dose aspirin a) Causes PUD bleeding in spite of using ranitidine b) Used to prevent stroke in TIA patient c) Inhibits fatty acid cyclooxygenase d) Has no effect on bleeding time e) Inhibits Vit K dependent clotting factor synthesis
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
What are the causes of long QT interval a) Hyperkalaemia b) Hypomagnesaemia c) Hypercalcaemia d) Amitriptyline e) D-sotalol
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Causative drugs of gynaecomastia a) Digoxin therapy b) Cimetidine c) Exogenous androgen administration d) 5a - reductase inhibitor therapy e) Spironolactone
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Following tissue cannot use glucose without the help of insulin a) Muscle b) Connective tissue c) Brain d) Liver е) RBC
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Laboratory findings in hypothyroidism may include a) Hyperbilirubinemia b) Hyponatremia c) Hypokalemia d) Hypercalcemia e) Hypertriglyceridemia
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Hypophysis cerebri a) Below fourth ventricle b) Within sella turcica c) Tentorium cerebri covered d) Supply internal carotid artery e) Portal system carry neuro-endocrine hormone
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Primary adrenocortical insufficicency produces a) Hypoglycemia b) Hypotension c) Hypokalemia d) Metabolic acidosis e) Hypopigmentation
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Medications used in the management of Alzheimers disease are a) Aspirin b) Gallamine c) Donepezil d) Rivastigmine e) Tacrine
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
The mental state examination is performed to examine a) The person's IQ b) Memory c) Thought d) Speech е) Моod
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome include a) Insomnia b) Hallucination c) Ataxia d) Seizure e) Anxiety
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Degenerative causes of Dementia a) Alzheimer's disease b) Multi-infarct dementia c) Pick's disease d) Wilson's disease e) Huntington's disease
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
What are the causes of Depression? [FCPS- a) Lack of Nor-adrenaline b) Stimulation of Acetylcholine c) Stimulation of Adrenalin d) Inhibition of Dopamine e) Increased somatostatin level
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
ST depression on the ECG measured in mm is a) Categorical type of data b) Ordinal type of data c) Qualitative data d) Quantitative type of data e) Measured in ratio scale
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Measures of central tendency are a) Median b) Mean c) Mode d) Range e) Standard deviation
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Scales used in biostatistics a) Normal scale b) Ratio scale c) Continuous scale d) Intervening scale e) Interval scale
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Following are true about Normal Distribution curve a) Plotted using an arithmetic scale b) Bilaterally symmetrical c) 50% values above the mean d) +_ 2SD covers 90% population e) Mean median mode coincide
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Which are the Quantitative parametric test a) High/Rise of precapillary pressure in pulmonary hypertension b) Right atrial pressure indicates decreased central venous pressure c) Increase Central venous pressure indicate left ventricular outflow obstruction d) 30 mm of Hg pressure raises indicate pulmonary hypertension e) Low precapillary pressure in pulmonary hypertension
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Direct arterial blood supply of lung a) An internal thoracic artery b) A superior epigastric artery c) Posterior intercostal artery d) A bronchial artery e) Pulmonary arteries
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
What are the causes of chronic type 1 respiratory failure? a) Acute severe asthma b) Upper airway obstruction c) Sleep apnoea d) Pneumothorax e) ARDS
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Functional residual capacity is a) Volume of air exhaled during expiration b) Maximal amount of air that can be expired c) Amount of air left in the lung at the end of expiration d) The resting volume of respiration system e) Measured by spirometry
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Causes of bronchiectasis include a) Pulmonary TB b) Pulmonary hypo-gamma globulinemia c) Viral pneumonia d) Whooping cough e) Cystic fibrosis
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Protective agents in the lung-lining fluid a) Surfactant c) Complement b) Immunoglobulins d) Proteinase enzyme e) Fatty acid in mucosa
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Brain stem pneumotaxic center damage causes a) Increase of tidal volume b) Apnea if vagus is also cut c) Irregular breathing with gasping d) Cessation of respiration e) Prolonged inspiratory spasm
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Below which provide maximum pulmonary resistance a) Alveoli b) Trachea c) Small bronchi d) Large bronchi e) Medium size bronchi
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Regarding incidental pulmonary nodule a) Appears on imaging as focal opacity < 3cm b) Invariably beyond the vision of bronchoscope c) Central calcium deposition cause hamatoma d) Pop-com pattern is granuloma e) Needed CT for diagnosis
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
No metastatic extra-pulmonary manifestation of bronchogenic carcinoma a) SIADH causing hyponatremia b) Hypercalemia c) Nephritic syndrome d) Hypocalcemia e) Stroke
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Regarding inspiration a) Abdominal pressure in more positive b) Diaphragm is flattened c) Anterior posterior diameter is increased d) Lateral diameter of lung is decreased e) Vertical diameter of lung in decreased
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Erythropoietin -- a) Released from peritubular capillary b) Released from macula dense c) Released from JG cells d) Released from Extra-glom rube cell & mesangial cells e) Released from laics cell
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Metabolic acidosis with increased anion gap can be found in a) Renal failure b) Renal tubular acidosis c) Lactic acidosis d) Diarrhea e) Diabetic ketoacidosis
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Regarding minimal change nephropathy a) Proteinuria is common b) Relapse is frequent c) Frequently progress to CKD d) Is a common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children e) Does not occur in adults
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
At least which amount of urine is needed to excrete waste a) 200 ml b) 400 ml c) 500 ml d) 700 ml e) 800 ml
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
In case of IgA nephropathy [FCPS-Medicine-July-2019] a) Thematuria is d earliest sign b) Proteinuria is early feature c) Progress to end stage renal disease d) Asymptomatic presentations dominate in older adults e) Responds to immune suppressive therapy is poor
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Which of the following are not affected by drug induced SLE a) CNS b) Kidney c) Pleura d) Skin e) Heart
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Anti-nuclear antibodies can be found in a) Autoimmune hepatitis b) Systemic sclerosis. c) Dermatomyositis d) Rheumatoid arthritis e) Ankylosing spondylitis
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Regarding Juvenile Idiopathic arthritis a) Associated with high fever b) Salmon rash may be present c) Lymphadenopathy d) Micrognathia may occur in chronic case e) RA & ANF positive
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Regarding juvenile idiopathic arthritis-- a) Oligo arthritis is most common b) Uveitis symptomatic c) ANA is negative, ESR & CRP may be normal d) Cardiac involvement e) Treatment option is methotrexate
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
X-ray signs of osteoarthritis a) Subchondral cysts b) Joint narrowing c) Intra articular panna formation d) Periarticular osteoporosis e) Subchondral sclerosis
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Secondary syphilis - a) Gumma b) Condylomata lata c) Tabes dorsalis d) Hutchison's teeth e) Maculopapular eruption
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Opportunistic fungi are a) Candida b) Histoplasma c) Epidermophyton d) Trichophyton e) Cryptococcus
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Opportunistic mycoses are a) Mucor b) Mycetam c) Aspergilus d) Candida e) Rhizopore
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Regarding brucellosis a) Brucellosis is an enzootic infection b) Survive for long period in RE system c) B. suies causes most severe disease d) It has tendency to relapse e) Physical signs are specific
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Cryptosporidiosis characteristics? a) Fungus b) Host in both animal and humans c) Cause self limiting infection d) Faeco oral route transmission e) Incubation period is 7-10 days
Option a is true
Option a is false
Option b is true
Option b is false
Option c is true
Option c is false
Option d is true
Option d is false
Option e is true
Option e is false
Which one is true in case of DVT?
a) Starts in proximal veins
b) Previous attack of DVT is most predisposing factor
c) Bilateral DVT is common, occurring in up to 30%
d) Affected limb is not warm
e) Thrombolysis is always consider
In beta thalassemia major, most important diagnostic feature is
a) Erythroblast
b) Increased HbF
c) Reticulocutes
d) Microcytic hypochromic blood film
e) Increased HbA2
In megaloblastic anemia, which one is most common?
a) Subacute combined degeneration
b) Anaemia
c) Dementia
d) Optic atrophy
e) Peripheral Neuropathy
A patient came to you with aplastic anemia. Which clinical feature is not associated?
a) Jaundice
b) Gum bleeding
c) Fever
d) Bony tenderness
e) Generalized lymphadenopathy
Indication for thrombophilia screening
a) H/O Arterial thrombosis
b) Portal vein thrombosis
c) Venous thrombosis > 45 yrs
d) Hepatic artery thrombosis
e) Venous thrombosis at usual site
A 50 years old man having a long history of smoking, presents with anorexia, weight loss & anemia. On examination, there are enlarged lymph nodes in left supraclavicular region. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
a) Tuberculosis
b) Gastric carcinoma
c) Bronchial carcinoma
d) Oesophageal carcinoma
e) Lymphoma
Commonest cause of Acute Pancreatitis
a) Alcohol
b) Drugs
c) Cholelithiasis
d) Viral Infections
e) Pregnancy
What is the commonest cause of pancreatitis in our country?
a) Gall stone
b) Hypertriglyceridemia
c) Cystic fibrosis
d) Alcohol
e) Нуpеграгathyrоidism
Which is not a cause of acute pancreatitis
a) Hyperlipidaemia
b) Pancrease division
c) Hypercalcaemia
d) Hypermagnesaemia
e) Gallstones
Which Ig deficient in coeliac discase
a) Ig A
b) Ig G
c) Ig M
d) Ig D
e) Ig E
A 21-years old phenotypically female patient having webby neck & amenorrhea should have the following chromosomal pattern
а) 47, XXY
b) 45, ХО
c) 47, XXX
d) 45, XY
e) 46, XO
Features of Autosomal dominant inheritance
a) Males & females are affected in roughly equal numbers
b) There are affected individuals in each generation
c) The offspring risk is 50%
d) Variable penetrance and expressivity present
e) Offspring risk is true for each pregnancy
Regarding autosomal recessive disorder
a) Mostly heterozygous state
b) Approximately 1 in 2 children of carrier is affected
c) Complete penetrance not common usually
d) Loss of uniform pattern in generation
e) Variable expressiblity least seem
Which is not a part of basal ganglia
a) Caudate nucleus
b) Amygdala
c) Claustrum
d) Putamen
e) Pyroform fossa
A neurological disease which is gradual onset and progressive in nature by days. Which is the most appropriate cause of this condition?
a) Demyelinating disease
b) Upper motor neuron disease
c) Lower motor neuron disease
d) Plexiform neurofibromatosis
e) Chronic inflammatory disease
Most important cause of hyper-somnolence
a) Narcolepsy
b) Depression
c) Restless leg syndrome
d) Parkinsons disease
e) Fibromyalgia
A 60 year old patient crying spells and urinary incontinence after 3 month of ischemic stroke. Which lobe is involved?
a) Limbic lobe
b) Frontal
c) Parietal
d) Temporal
e) Occipital
Woman has abnormal jerky movements, bladder bowel normal, no sensory deficit, no weakness. Reflex normal. Which site involved?
a) Basal ganglia
b) Cerebellum
c) Hypothalamus
d) Frontal lobe
e) Internal capsule
Which control the pro-inflammatory cascade by neutralizing the enzyme produced by activated neutrophils?
a) Antitrypsin
b) Fibrinogen
c) ESR
d) CRP
e) Elastase
Single gene defect non classic inheritance is feature of [
a) AD
b) AR
c) Genomic imprinting
d) XLD
e) XLR
Aldosterone hypersecretion causes increase in which fluid volume
a) Interstitial fluid
b) CSF
c) Urine
d) Intra ocular fluid
e) ЕCF
Thyrotoxic erisis immediate management
e) Digoxin
c) Prazosin
b) Bisoprolol
d) Thyroxin
a) Propanolol
Most common pancreatic endocrine tumor
a) Carcinoid tumor
b) Insulinoma
c) Glucagonoma
d) Gastrinoma
e) Neurofinroma
A 70 years old man sudden collapse while walking. Pulse absent, respiration absent. Best to describe the situation
a) Complete heart block
b) Acute coronary syndrome
c) Cardiac arrest
d) Vasovagal arrest
e) Heart failure
Hypertensive patient, BP Now 100/70 mm, EF- 30%. Now developed altered colour vision for last 1 month, Which is the drug he should be taken for hypertension?
a) Atenolol
b) Digitalis
c) Ramipril
d) Thiazide
e) Losartan
if you suddenly stand up from lying position, which one of your BP mechanism will activate?
a) Baroreceptor mechanism
b) Chemoreceptor mechanism
c) Both baroreceptor and chemoreceptor
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
Which organ gets maximum amount of cardiac output?
a) Splenic circulation
b) Brain
c) Kidney
d) Muscle
e) Liver
DM and proteinuria present in a patient, drug to control HTN?
a) ARB
b) ССВ
c) Thiazide
d) Alpha blocker
e) Beta blocker
A 25 year young Female came to you hyperparathyroidism with prolactinoma, what is the most probable diagnosis
a) Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor
b) Carcinoma syndrome
c) Multiple endocrine neoplasia
d) Pheochromocytoma
e) Paraganglioma
Father in diagnosed of DM at 30 yr age. Body has BMI > 34, Fasting glucse-8.5, PPG-12 no other symptoms. Dx?
a) FCPD
b) Type I DM
c) MODY
d) Type 2 DM
e) DM of other cause
In testicular teratoma, to see treatment response
a) Alpha fetoprotein
b) HCG
c) PSA
d) Beta 2 microglobulin
e) TSH
Main hormone secreted by ovary
a) Estrone
b) Estradiol
c) Estriol
d) Oestrogen
e) Inhibin
Aldosterone hypersecretion causes increase in which fluid volume
a) Interstitial fluid
b) CSF
c) Urine
d) Intra ocular fluid
e) ECF
A diabetic patient developed septicemia. Blood count is 19000 m3. What should be the investigation of choice?
a) CXR-P/A View
b) USG of W/A
c) Urine C/S
d) HBsAg
e) HCV IgM
Urinary measurement of metanephrine is increased in
a) Tumor of zona glomerulosa
b) Tumor of zona fasciculate
c) Tumor of zona reticularis
d) Tumor of chromaffin system
Most appropriate marker for assessing liver synthetic function
a) S. Bilirubin
c) SGPT
b) SGOT
d) Prothrombin time
e) S. Albumin
Serum Homocystine is reduced by/ removed from body
a) Methyl cobalamine
b) Folic acid
c) Biotin
d) Pyridoxine
e) Vitamin B
A 50 years old male alcoholic with poor diet, presents with foot drop, psychosis. Which deficiency causes this?
a) Thiamine
b) Niacin
c) Vitamin B12
d) Riboflavin
e) Pyridoxine
Hypervitaminosis K which is the most important clinical features
a) Hyperpigmentation/ Dermatitis
b) Gastrointestinal disturbance
c) Hyperirritability
d) AKI
e) Hemolysis
Serum Homocystine is reduced by/ removed from body
a) Methyl cobalamine
b) Folic acid
c) Biotin
d) Pyridoxine
e) Vitamin B1
Which is characteristic of Bullous pemphigoid?
a) Tense bullae
b) Deposition of IgG & C3 at the dermal-epidermal junction
c) Subepidermal cyst
d) Presence of mucosal lesions
e) Presence with persistent urticarial lesions
A woman of 25 years old presented with erythematous rash on check, sparing nasolabial fold
a) Contact dermatitis
b) Acne rosacea
c) Erysepelas
d) Dermatomyositis
e) SLE
Conversion of 7-dehydrocholesterol to vitamin D is mediated by which cell?
a) Keratinocytes
b) Langerhans cells
c) Dendritic cells
d) Macrophage
e) Hisiocytes
In temperature regulation, skin helps by
a) Extensive capillary bed
b) Increased hydrostatic pressure
c) Eccrine sweat gland
d) Decreased plasma colloidal osmotic pressure
e) Increased sodium resorption
Which layer is the barrier of skin
a) Stratum basale
b) Stratum corneum
c) Stratuin Lucidum
d) Stratum Granulosum
e) Stratum spongiosum
A female patient after giving 4 child birth develops urinary incontinence. What will be advice you want to give?
a) Pelvic muscle exercise
b) Estrogen patch
c) Surgery
d) Catheter
c) Bladder retrainng
Deposition of IgA occurs in
a) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
b) Mesengiocapillary glomerulonephritis
c) IgA nephropathy
d) Minimal change disease
e) Membranous GN
High urinary fractional excretion of sodium is found in which?
a) Heart failure
b) Hypovolemia
c) Acute glomerulonephritis
d) Urinary tract infection
e) Acute tubular necrosis
A female patient present with persistent proteinuria. Which investigation leads us to renal biopsy?
a) 24 hour urinary protein 65 mg/day
b) ACR 150 mg/ml
c) PCR 50 mg/ml
d) Bence jones proteinuria
e) Pus cell 11-15/ HPF
Most important investigation finding in urine R/M/E of Glomerulonephritis
a) RBC cart
b) Granular cast
c) Hyaline taste
d) RBC cast
e) Reticular cast
Limited joint movement in which joint
a) Temperomandibular
b) Sacroiliac
c) Subtalar
d) Knee
e) Costovertebral joint
Most common problem in RA
a) Osteitis
b) Chondritis
c) Synovitis
d) Capsulitis.
e) Periosteitis
Long term control of asthma drug of first choice is
a) Sustain release theophylline
b) Montelukast
c) Salmeterol
d) Systemic corticosteroids
e) Salbutamol
A patient of 50 yrs is taking cigarette 25/ pack yr. & increase mucosal bronchial secretion which of the following cell is responsible for it
a) Goblet cell
b) Clara cells
c) Epithelial cells
d) Columnar cells
e) Goblet cells
Most common cause of hospital acquired pneumonia
a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b) Mycoplasma pneumonitis
c) Streptococcus pneumonitis
d) Moraxella catarrhalis
e) Klebsiella
Most important cause of hypersomnolence
a) Depression
b) Opiates
c) Narcolepsy
d) Restless leg syndrome
e) Sleep deprivation
Patient has lung mass on x-ray, Na-128, cl-90, K-3.8. Which type of lung cancer is most likely
a) SCLC (Small cell lung carcinoma)
b) Squamous
c) Adeno carcinoma
d) Lymphoma
e) Large cell
Autoantibody screening for prognosis of diseases
a) RA for rheumatoid arthritis
b) ANA for SLE
c) Anti-Ds for SLE
d) Anti SCL 70 for SLE
e) Anti Ro/Sm for Sjogrein's syndrome
A 71-year-old lady with scoliosis presented with sudden onset severe back pain. X-ray shows osteopenia with a transverse fracture & vertebral collapse. BMD is normal. What is the probable diagnosis?
a) Osteoporosis
b) Osteosclerosis
c) Osteomalacia
d) Osteopetrosis
e) Osteodystrophy
A 90 yrs old patient presented with fracture of tibia. Which of the following cell is responsible for increased destruction of bone?
a) Osteoclast
b) Osteoblast
c) Osteoprogenitor cell
d) Osteocyte
e), Chondroblast
Which of the following is the method of developing bacterial drug resistance?
a) Decrease of bacterial enzymes that activate a drug
b) Use of the drug in a metabolic pathway
c) Production of more substrates to compete with the drug for a binding site
d) Change of the molecular target of the drug
e) Decrease of bacterial enzymes that modify the drug
Which in the most confirmatory test in the Kala-azar?
a) Aldehyde test
b) Rk 39 test
c) ELISA test
d) PCR test
e) LD body detection test
Which is the commonest organism in pt of central venous catheter?
a) Streptococcus aureus
b) Staph. Epidermidis
c) Staph. Saprophyticus
d) Staph. Mitis
e) Staph. Sanguis
A patient come with vomiting and diarrhea 5 hrs after eating reheated fried rice and meat. Which organism is responsible for this food poisoning?
a) Salmonella
b) C.perfringens
c) Bacillus cereus
d) E. coli
e) Retrovirus
Wuchereria bancrofti microfilaria are found mostly in
a) Lymphatics
b) Hydrocele
c) Peripheral blood at night
d) Pulmonary eosinophilia in p. circulation
e) Lymph nodes
Which of the following are called 'Heart Failure Cells'?
a) Epithelioid cells
b) Kupffer cells
c) Alveolar Macrophages
d) CD 4+ T-cells
e) Cardiac myocytes
Which is the most prominent clue for the diagnosis of SLE?
a) High ESR
b) High CRP
c) Leucopenia
d) Anemia
e) Thrombocytopenia
Opsonization property of which immunoglobulin?
a) IgE
b) IgG
c) IgD
d) IgA
e) IgM
Humoral immunity by
a) T cell
b) B cell
c) NK cell
d) Macrophage
e) Basophil
Liver macrophages?
a) Kupfer cell
b) Microglia
c) Messangial
d) Monocyte
e) Histocyte
